Let P be the output price for a particular good. Why is the value P*MP

Let P be the output price for a particular good. Why is the value P*MPL greater than MRPL for a monopolist?

A) The monopolist is not as technically efficient as firms operating under perfect competition.
B) The monopolist hires less labor, so MPL is higher under a monopoly than under perfect competition.
C) The monopolist sets a price that is higher than MR.
D) A and C are correct.
E) B and C are correct.

ANSWER

E