The evidence cited in the chapter using the examples of the East Asia

The evidence cited in the chapter using the examples of the East Asia New Industrializing Countries suggests that as international productivities converge, so do international wage levels.

Why do you suppose this happened for the East Asian NICs? In light of your answer, what do you think is likely to happen to the relative wages (relative to those in the United States) of China in the coming decade? Explain your reasoning.

ANSWER

Following the logic of the Ricardian model of comparative advantage, the East Asian countries played to their respective comparative advantages. This allowed the world demand to provide excess demands for their relatively abundant labor, which in turn tended to raise these wages. If China follows the same pattern, their wages levels should also be expected over time to converge to those in their industrialized country markets.